I just learned that a Congressperson isn't actually required to live in the
district he "represents." Jason Chafetz doesn't live in
"his" district.If that is the case, why can I vote for
only one representative. Shouldn't all Utah citizens be able to vote for all
our representatives?I've read and re-read the Constitution and
haven't found an answer there. Where did the current practice originate. Can
it be changed?Does anyone out there have an answer?
Wouldn't it be nice if they "lined up" with actually representing the
people instead of themselves?
Carl Wimmer knows, whats up with that?