So what does it mean for the individual citizen? If a Utah government official
performs or neglects his duties or a Federal official performs or neglects his
duties, the impact is probably wider, but how else might it be different. States' rights have been used in the past to defend some harmful
acts toward groups of humans living in the state, as have federal acts, but it
seems that the state actions were more frequent. Tangentally, what about
States do not have independent sovereignty, and any independent actions are
generally as allowed by the federal government. Did these people stop studying
U. S. History at the year 1787? This is incredibly naive or willful ignorance.
"allowed BY the federal government"?So where does the
federal government derive its powers?Have you even studied the
constitution?Is it not the united STATES?